Legal Question in Family Law in California

In California, is there a law specifying if a divorcing party has exclusive use of the home and does not pay the mortgage, then that party is legally responsible for the arrearage?


Asked on 9/03/15, 12:33 pm

1 Answer from Attorneys
Arlene Kock Law Offices of Arlene D. Kock APLC

The California courts would typically order a party in possession of the residence to pay for the normal expenses including taxes mortgage and insurance but it's not an absolute given depending upon the financial circumstances of the parties. Your question needs more information. Please meet with an experienced family law attorney to explore your legal options.

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Answered on 9/04/15, 6:39 pm


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