Legal Question in Real Estate Law in California

Mortgage Fraud?

Is it possible for someone to hold their own mortgage note?

In other words, can a spouse or partner own a home without the other spouse or partner knowing, and, in effect, pay the mortgage, with all of the interest expense added, to himself?

I guess it boils down to holding your own note, using it to obtain the ''loan'' from yourself, then collecting the payments which can be kept for yourself as the spouse believes the money is going to the ''lender''?

I have reason to believe that this exact situation has been used against a girlfriend of mine by her husband.

How can a person discover who the person is that ultimately receives the mortgage payments?

Thank you.


Asked on 5/23/06, 10:59 pm

2 Answers from Attorneys

Lyle Johnson Bedi and Johnson Attorneys at Law

Re: Mortgage Fraud?

In addition to Mr. Whipple's fine answer, spouses must disclose all assets if there is a divorce. Failure to disclose an asset is fraud. The statute of limitations on fraud is 3 years from the date of discovery of the fialure to disclose. The court can award the entire asset to the defrauded spouse.

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Answered on 5/24/06, 3:54 pm
Bryan Whipple Bryan R. R. Whipple, Attorney at Law

Re: Mortgage Fraud?

I think that the first thing that needs to be said is that folks who are married to each other have a legal (statutory) duty to be honest, candid, frank and forthcoming with each other as to financial, business, legal, etc. matters. See Family Code, section 721(b).

Any sneaking around of the type suggested by your question would probably violate this Code provision, rendering the various acts of subterfuge fraudulent and subject to voiding by a court and/or monetary damages.

Now, as to the more general proposition. As you know, there are three parties to the typical deed of trust: (1) the owner, borrower and trustor (all the same person or group of persons such as a husband and wife; (2) the lender or beneficiary; and (3) the trustee. Your question seems to ask whether #1 and #2, i.e., borrower and lender, can be the same. The answer here is probably not. You can't lend money to yourself. A court will not recognize too close a connection between trustor and beneficiary; the court would conclude that there was no real obligation. See, e.g. In re Universal Farming Industries (9th Circuit, 1989) 873 F.2d 1334; Wilson v. McLaughlin (1937) 20 Cal.App.2d 608.

My overall impression is that the arrangement you allude to is a sham and a fraud; that it will be torn apart by a judge; and that the spouse who designed it will be raked over hot coals.

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Answered on 5/24/06, 12:34 am


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