Legal Question in Traffic Law in California

It is my understanding that a statute is defined as "given the weight of law by consent of the governed". Does a statute have the weight of law, absent consent? In other words: Can a statute be imposed absent consent?


Asked on 7/26/15, 4:56 pm

1 Answer from Attorneys

Joe Dane Law Office of Joe Dane

If this is a question along the lines of whether or not state laws can be applied to you as either a "free person" "free man" or sovereign citizen, the answer is yes, they can.

Read more
Answered on 7/26/15, 4:58 pm


Related Questions & Answers

More Traffic Law questions and answers in California