Legal Question in Civil Litigation in Pennsylvania

I was divorced in May 2004 at the time I signed every document that was given to me. I just got a call ftom my attorney that represented me and come to find out the I was never given the deed to what I believed was only his property now. They now want me to come in and sign the deed over to a man who got away with domestic abuse and just about every thing else 6 years ago. Do I have any legal right to not sign or ask for more money since I evidently am still 1/2 owner of the house and property?


Asked on 7/07/10, 6:38 am

1 Answer from Attorneys

This is really a family law issue. You need to read your marital settlement agreement. And since you have an attorney, it is not ethical for me to intervene at this juncture.

It depends on what the documents say, but if you already gave away the property in the agreement, then this is just a formality. If there was domestic abuse, the time to ask for more money was during the divorce/equitable distribution/alimony/spousal support proceedings. On the other hand, if the agreement is truly silent on the whole issue of the property, then you should not just sign. You deserve to be compensated for your share of the equity in the property. You do not indicate the value of the property, whether it is mortgaged or the amount that your ex-husband has expended on repairs/improvements, taxes, insurance or general maintenance since the divorce. All of this would have to be factored in to the equation in deciding what your share is worth.

I suggest that you review the settlement agreement and then speak to your divorce attorney to see if any further money can be gained and, if so, how much.

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Answered on 7/07/10, 1:25 pm


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