Legal Question in Real Estate Law in India
My grandfather is not educated but in 1980�s his cousin has typed some agreement stating that my grandfather has given full rights to enjoy and own his properties (vacant land)and my grandfather has signed the agreement (As per updates from my father; my grandfather literally don�t know to sign), subsequently his cousin sold my grandfather�s property and the buyer in turn sold it to others and it went on� My grandfather died in 1990�s and me (current age 28) being his only grandson came to know about the property, went and enquired the current owner to let him know about what had happened.. They showed a long face and said they to be the owners.
It is possible for me to demand rights in that property stating the initial agreement that happened in 1980 to be invalid?
1 Answer from Attorneys
21.03.2014
Dear Sir,
It surprises me that you are sitting pretty since 1990 when your grandfather passed away. I see no way in which you are in any position whatsoever to claim any rights in your grandfather's property under the pretext of the agreement signed by your late grandfather being legally invalid.
Regards,
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