Legal Question in Real Estate Law in

MR.A. the purchaser files a suit under specific performance for an sale agreement.but the sale agreement is signed by only the parties who have agreed to sell the property and not signed by MR.A and the original sale agreement is submitted in the court without the signature of MR.A-IS THE SALE AGREEMENT VALID.


Asked on 10/01/10, 9:55 am

3 Answers from Attorneys
Shrichand Nahar S.V.Nahar, Advocate

Depends on several other factors.

If A is able to establish existence of an agreement or contract, then mere absence of his signature on the agreement may be inconsequential.

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Answered on 10/01/10, 9:03 pm
Vishwa Arya Arya & Co.

per se, it is not. However, if A by his conduct have otherwise acted upon the terms of the agreement or taken steps in terms of the agreement certainly the agreement is there/

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Answered on 10/01/10, 10:39 pm
RAJIV GUPTA (Cell: +91 9811284735) [email protected]

the agreement is incomplete without the signatures of purchaser but it does not invalidate the sale transaction ipso facto if other evidence is cogent and reliable.

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Answered on 10/02/10, 1:54 am


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