Legal Question in Business Law in California

The job consists of manufacturing a product in two steps. In our estimate form that we gave to our customer, we have stated that the proposed price is a packaged price for performing both steps. However since the first step is to be performed immediately to manufacture preliminary materials which are to be stored at our facility, we will bill the first step when that step is completed. The preliminary material will then be utilized to produce final products by second step as needed over the coming months to produce final products and we will bill the customer when each second step is performed. Our customer awarded us the job based on the estimate. The first step was performed, preliminary materials were produced and stored at our facility to be used by the second step. The customer paid for the first step. Now the customer does not want us to perform the second step and has asked to get the preliminary product back, saying that since he paid for it he is entitled to get his property. We have shown him the original estimate form pointing out that this is a packaged price and since he has not paid the full price, he is not entitled to get the preliminary products. He said since he did not signed the estimate, what is written on the estimate was not binding. Does an estimate need to be signed to be legally binding? Isn't moving forward with the job implying that the customer agreed to the terms of the estimate?


Asked on 10/06/10, 11:59 pm

1 Answer from Attorneys

You probably think you have a cut and dried case and are looking for affirmation to use in dealing with your customer. If that is the case, I'm sorry to disappoint you. Your question reads like a law school or bar exam question. If you asked the 1717 attorneys who passed the last California Bar Exam your question on the exam, you would get over 5151 different analyses and answers. The reason is that, like a good exam question, there is so much unknown or unspecified about the facts. That makes for a great exam question, because the test taker is expected to demonstrate their legal knowledge with a series of "if this then . . ." responses. Unfortunately for you who wants an answer to their business issue, there is an argument to be made that you have a written contract, an oral contract, a contract by conduct, a contract by custom and usage, no contract, or an equitable claim. Your customer is wrong that they must sign the estimate to have a contract, but they still might be right that there is no contract, or at least not on the terms of your estimate. The good news is that under most ways we could look at this, the customer probably owes you something, either for breach of contract or under some other theory. Back to the bad news, even if you had an iron-clad contract, the customer has paid for the intermediate product. So they are entitled to breach the contract if you have one and face the consequences of that if they choose, but they still are entitled to the intermediate product. If you withhold it, you risk being legally determined to have taken it, and the customer can sue you for the value or the cost of replacing it, whichever is greater, as well as cancelling the contract. So, without answering your legal question, since we can't, I can give you a business answer. You should let your customer know that the law recognizes contracts without any signature, including one formed by partial performance of the agreement. If they want to abide by the contract, great. If they want to breach the contract, they can have what they paid for, but you will sue them for breach of contract for the profit you would have earned had the contract been fully performed. Up to you if you want to also offer to renegotiate the contract and put it in a clear written form (I would, but up to you). If they call you hand and breach the (probable) contract, give me a call and we can get into the details to see if you have a case worth persuing.

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Answered on 10/12/10, 1:01 am


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