Legal Question in Business Law in California
Partnerships
We have a singing group of 4 members, all of whom entered into a Partnership Agreement. --name removed--independent singer periodically performs with the group, and has recently voluntarily quit, and now claims his act of performing with the group and profiting from the group has automatically made him a partner. He is now claiming he has rights to buy-out provisions. There are no verbal or written unanimous consents or resolutions authorizing his entry into the Partnership, and he has never entered into a Group Contract or a contract of his own. Does he have buy-out rights or provisions?
He is also harrassing each member of the group, their families and professional affiliates while incorrectly quoting the law. Does this allow us to file a civil harrasment lawsuit?
2 Answers from Attorneys
Re: Partnerships
Based upon the facts provided in your question, it would appear that the performer is not, and has never been, a member of the partnership entitling him to anything more than payment for his individual performances. Generally the only way one can become a member of a partnership is with the consent of the all the partners.
You may be able to obtain a restraining order against this individual to pervent the harassment you describe.
You should make arrangements to consult with an attorney in your area who emphasizes business and business litigation. Perhaps a letter from a lawyer is all you need to resolve your problem. At a minimum, a consultation with an attorney would give you a clear picture of what your options are.
Re: Partnerships
The answer to the partnership law question is probably not. Here's the analysis.
A partnership is formed whenever two or more persons associate to carry on as co-owners a business for profit, whether or not the persons intend to create a partnership. See Corporations Code section 16202(a).
So, let's suppose A, B, C and D enter into a formal, structured, written partnership agreement including buy-out provisions. Let's call this Partnership X. Along comes E and does some occasional work with Partnership X, and receives a share of the profits, but is never formally admitted into Partnership X. E then departs, but later claims rights under Partnership X's agreement.
There are about five possible legal results, depending on the facts in your particular situation:
1) E was merely an employee of, or an independent contractor to, Partnership X, and is not entitled to share profits but only to agreed compensation.
2) E became a partner in Partnership X, along with A, B, C and D, even though there was no express agreement to admit E as a partner.
3) When E came along, Partnership X ceased to exist and was replaced by Partnership Y, whose partners are A, B, C, D and E.
4) When E came along, Partnership X continued to exist, with A, B, C, and D as its partners, and a new partnership, Partnership Y, was formed, whose partners are A, B, C, D, and E.
5). When E came along, Partnership X continued to exist, and a new partnership, Partnership Y, was formed, whose partners are Partnership X and E.
You haven't given me enough facts (and certainly couldn't, in the limited LawGuru context, to say for certain which of the five results occurred as a result of E's association with your group.
Nevertheless, I would guess, based upon what little you've said, is that #5 is the most likely, with #1 being my second-place guess.
Your "Mr. E" is trying to urge theory #2, and might be satisfied with #3, although the express buy-out provisions of the Partnership X agreement would be replaced by the general provisions of the Uniform Partnership Act and might be less favorable to E.
I would say that E's chances of prevailing on his theories are very small, but not zero, and if there are additional facts showing a close collaboration especially in the area of profit (and loss) sharing, E's chances improve.
There are two approaches to harassment. One is to seek a restraining order under Code of Civil Procedure section 527.6. The other is to file a suit for damages. You can do both, but read 527.6 to see if the harassment rises to the level that allows a court to enjoin it. The same or greater level of harassment may be needed to get money damages in a tort lawsuit for harassment.
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