Legal Question in Credit and Debt Law in California

Am I responsible for a bill first presented 4 1/2 years after service?

I just received my first and only bill 4 1/2 years after the date of service. My child was born in April 2000 and was hospitalized until Mid May 2000. On May 1 2000 my insurance company changed. Therefore there are two different insurance companies involved with this stay.

I received a bill showing both insurances have supposedly paid their share of costs (beginning in 8/2000 through the most recent payment in 9/2004) and after coordination of benefits there is a balance of $2500 due, which they have billed us for. I spoke to the hospital billing department and they stated there is no statute of limitation for billing us. Everything I've read seems like at the most there is a 4 year limitation and that expired nearly 6 months ago. Are we in fact liable for these charges?


Asked on 10/01/04, 12:44 am

1 Answer from Attorneys
Larry Rothman Larry Rothman & Associates

Re: Am I responsible for a bill first presented 4 1/2 years after service?

There is either a 4 year or 2 year statute of limitations on the bill. An exception is if a judgment was entered against you. You may not even know if a judgment exists. I would have to review your documentation and attempt to locate a judgment against you. For some court's I can easily do this by computer. Please fax your correspondence to me at 714 363 0229 and include your phone number. I will call you and advise you if you have a case or what to do to resolve your problem.

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Answered on 10/02/04, 10:21 pm


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