Legal Question in Criminal Law in California
Can a criminal sentence include conditions for a non-party to the case in consideration for term of probation? (i.e. 5 year probation reduced to 3 years if a condition is met that a non-party to the case sells their home in that time period). How can a condition be set that the convicted person has no control over?
1 Answer from Attorneys
It does seem a little odd, but there is probably nothing wrong with it. You dd not mention whether the defendant plead guilty or was convicted at trial. Obviously, if the defendant agreed to a deal with this condition the condition is fine. Apparently, the court believes if the house is sold by the non-party the defendant is less likely to be a threat. Since it only relates to the probationary period, and not jail time or fines, it seems reasonable.
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