Legal Question in Criminal Law in California

You have asked this before, the answer won't change. There are facts here that are missing here. Monetary damages that resulted, I assume is a fine or penalty based on the police being called.

So if you had a fine you paid as a result of this then you were found guilty of something.

Even if they made a false report, it gave the police enough to show up and you were convicted or you admitted to a crime. Which means although the original basis was false you were still braking the law.

If you were charged and the monetary damages were attorneys fees and it went beyond just a police report then there was probable cause to believe you committed a crime and even with an acquittal, the PC gives the right to prosecute.

If the report was totally bogus and no charges resulted because it was just harassment, you might have a bass for a defamation claim but if you were conceited as above ... You won't get anything because you broke the law. Moral of the sporty don't break the law and then get your neighbors upset...

This is a civil question that should be asked on a civil litigation page. I would suggest that you give more details when you ask the question on the civil litigation page.

I agree with Mr. Green. You asked a question and you got an answer. Asking it again in a different way is not going to get you an attorney who will tell you what you want. You'll have to go in and pay someone for that.