Legal Question in Criminal Law in California

I transferred about 10K to my ex son in law for him to HOLD for a potential home purchase by my daughter.

(She cannot have a bank account due to section 8) I was not available to hold the funds (I was out of town), so transferred to him. His family needed money, so he used the money to pay THEIR bills & now has no money.

I have nothing in writing, other than transfer records & verbal agreements.

Is he the only one liable? Do I have a case?

Garth


Asked on 9/22/10, 9:46 pm

1 Answer from Attorneys
Dominique Thieu Thieu Virtual Law Group

This should be a civil matter rather than a criminal matter unless you can convince a District Attorney to press charges, which I doubt. You may want to consider hiring an attorney to assist you with this case. This case would be in limited jurisdiction. You have potential claims for: (1) breach of oral contract, (2) common count and (3) money had and received. If you have evidence of the family members who received the money, you may hold those individuals liable, too.

Read more
Answered on 10/08/10, 2:31 pm


Related Questions & Answers

More Criminal Law questions and answers in California