Legal Question in Family Law in California
Several atorneys recently answered a question of mine on Law Guru re: a 23 year old marriage and a house in my ex's name that was SOLD over 18 years ago,. SOLD by him to buy a house for our children and me that we BOTH wanted and that is in BOTH of our names. I realize OUR CURRENT house is part of community property in CA. Why would I owe him money for a house he willingly sold 18 years ago??? It was as if no one read the ENTIRE question!!! They kept referring to the property as if he still owned it.
2 Answers from Attorneys
I don't know who answered your question, but I didn't see it, and since you give almost no relevant information in this question I can't help you. If your original question was as unclear as this one, perhaps that is why you got answers that don't make sense.
From the sound of your question, it would probably be in your best interest to hire an attorney. If your husband sold his separate property home and used those proceeds as a down payment on your community property home, he may be entitled to a partial reimbursement of those funds. However, it sounds as if the prior home that he sold may have also had a community property interest in it. So, it's not that you owe him because he sold his prior home, it's that he may have a separate property interest in the current home. Without more information, no one can give you clear answer on this.