Legal Question in Family Law in California

Dividing Assets

We bought a home before we were married. My parents gave us the down payment, only my husband was on title. We paid mortgage with my income as well, then sold after we were married and comingled the proceeds into our joint checking account. He says I have no right to the proceeds, is this true or not?


Asked on 4/27/09, 9:56 pm

1 Answer from Attorneys

Colin Greene Russakow, Greene & Tan, LLP

Re: Dividing Assets

That's complicated. Before marriage, your rights are essentially contractual, meaning what was your agreement? To overcome the CA Civil Code title presumption, you have to have "clear and convincing evidence." So if he lies about your deal, you have proof problems. If you can prove (which I assume you can) the downpayment from your parents, you should win that the deal was 50/50 or whatever it was, but nothing is a lock in these cases. During marriage, a different set of rules applies. Again, we start with title, so you have a presumption that it is his separate property, then if you can prove the deal was different great, if not, at a minimum you have a "Moore/Marsden" interest, meaning the community property estate gains an interest proportional to the pay down of the principal on the mortgage during marriage, so you get 1/2 of that. Lastly, on commingling, if the funds can't be traced, you'll split them, but if he can trace the money trail, just because he put the money in a joint account doesn't mean he can't prove a separate property interest.

Got it? Alrighty then.

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Answered on 4/27/09, 11:18 pm


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