Legal Question in Family Law in California

In regards to a divorce... if my husband purchased a very expensive car w/o my consent while we were married (only he is on the paperwork), am I liable for this debt? Please advise


Asked on 7/02/10, 12:01 pm

3 Answers from Attorneys

Yes. You also have 1/2 ownership of the asset, however.

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Answered on 7/02/10, 3:10 pm
Rhonda Ellifritz Law Offices of Rhonda Ellifritz

If the purchase was made while you were not living together while this divorce was pending, probably not, but you need to make sure this is decided to be his debt by the judge and put in the judgment as such.

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Answered on 7/02/10, 3:14 pm
Anthony Roach Law Office of Anthony A. Roach

I would disagree with Mr. McCormick's assessment that you automatically own 1/2 the car simply because it was purchased during the marriage. The car itself may be separate property if the down payment and payments were made with funds traceable to your husband's separate property. You would have to provide more facts to determine whether or not the property is separate or community, and whether or not the debt is separate or community.

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Answered on 7/04/10, 1:46 pm


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