Legal Question in Family Law in California
If the family home is ordered by the Court to be listed for sale, and one party has exclusive use and possession, then who is responsible for listing the home?
Asked on 4/15/10, 9:45 am
1 Answer from Attorneys
If the court order does not specify, it is presumed that the parties will cooperate in listing it. Most agents would not take a listing in that circumstance unless both parties signed off on it anyway. Obviously the person in posession will have to coordinate showings.
Answered on 4/20/10, 6:09 pm
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