Legal Question in Family Law in California

It really depends. Did the third party intentionally go out of their way to break up the marriage? I need a little more information. For example, if an employer laid you or your spouse off and that lead to marital disharmony, then no. In all my experience I have never had this question asked so I am going to have to resort to some case law and precedent cases on the topic via Westlaw and perhaps LexisNexis. Was their infidelity involved? I need more info. Email me if you would like with some more details. There is a form at my website where you can fill out a question and send it to me, free of charge. I just need to know the details.

The answer is simple: No. Long ago there was a tort called Alienation of Affection. It was repealed by the legislature about 50 years ago.

No.