Legal Question in Family Law in California

My husband and I physically separated last March. We spilt up our assets 50/50, no formal agreement. Included in my 50% share is our homenwhich he signed over to me with the interspousal transfer deed. Now a year later, I want to file for divorce, can he claim our home as community property and get half of it or make me sell it?


Asked on 2/21/14, 2:15 am

1 Answer from Attorneys

Arlene Kock Law Offices of Arlene D. Kock APLC

If you have not divided the house by way of a marital judgment, it's quite likely that this property is and omitted asset that must be divided between the parties. If you already divided other property interests that may relate to the home based upon the earlier agreements , there may be an offset. This is a complicated issue involving a significant real property assets. Your case deserves the attention of an experienced family law attorney in an office consultation.

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Answered on 2/21/14, 7:17 am


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