Legal Question in Family Law in California

My husband received profit sharing money from his employer before we were married. He then took that money and bought stocks. Then we got married. So when I married him that money was in stocks. In my divorce am I intitled to any of it? We have lived together since January 1991 and married since September 2001. Thank you for your time.


Asked on 10/16/09, 1:43 pm

1 Answer from Attorneys

As long as he just held the stocks, or sold and bought with the proceeds, without adding any new money earned during the marriage, then it was and remains his sole and separate property. If he dipped into it to pay for things during the marriage, or added to the account with money or assets acquired during the marriage, it gets more complicated. But if he was just a buy and hold investor, it's all his.

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Answered on 10/16/09, 1:51 pm


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