Legal Question in Family Law in California

What makes a contract valid and enforcable?

I asked my husband to sign a statement that he would pay medical and hospital expense for my daughter and he did not respond. I had a quit claim prepared but it was never signed or notorized. I later found that medicaid had paid the hospital bill and nothing more was done. This happened in 1974. In 1993 I filed for divorce listing the property as assets and through a default I was awarded one-half of the property. He had the judgment set aside and stating I had signed the house over to him and he had paid medical coverage for the children. I just found out that his insurance paid some of the doctors for one incident of illiness. His part of the agreement was only partially satisfied. he was awarded all the property. He did not fully pay consideration that was agreed upon. Is there a valid conveyance of property?


Asked on 9/24/97, 10:16 pm

1 Answer from Attorneys
Bonnie Selby Bonnie J. Selby, Attorney at Law

LEGAL REPRESENTATION?

DID YOU HAVE COUNSEL WORKING IN YOUR BEHALF AT THE TIME OF YOUR DIVORCE OR WAS THIS A 'DO IT YOURSELF' SITUATION?IF COUNSEL, ASK THAT THEY FOLLOW UP--IF NOT, IT SOUNDS LIKE YOU HAVE A SITUATION WITH WHICH ATTORNEYS DEAL ON A DAILY BASIS: THOSE WITH NO TRAINING IN THE LAW ATTEMPTING TO RESOLVE THEIR OWN CASES--ALMOST ALWAYS A MESS AND COSTLY TO CLEAN UP.WHY SO LONG IN DISCOVERING THE PROBLEMS--NO NOTICE OF MEDICAL BILLS DUE?

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Answered on 9/25/97, 8:08 am


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