Legal Question in Family Law in California
I have been married 23 years and have 3 adult children. Before we married, my husband owned a home in his own name. Upon our marriage, I moved into that house and 2 of our children were born while living there. I contributed to the upkeep, maintainence, etc. After 5 years of marriage, the house was sold and the money was used as part of a down payment on a larger family home purchased in both of our names (we still live in this house). I have filed for divorce. My husband claims that I will have to pay him or give him our current house because he came into the marriage with a house in his name. Sounds crazy to me!! What do you say??
3 Answers from Attorneys
I agree. 23 years is a long time. The property's character has changed unless you signed some sort of quit claim deed or agreed to this property being separate property.
Time does not extinquish the separate property claim your husband has in the present house. Without a thorough evaluation of the facts and transactions, I cannot tell if there is a cast to be made that his equity in the first house became a gift to the community when the second house was bought. Assuming it was not, then he will be entitled to some amount of buy-out if you keep the house. That buy-out does not, however, have to be cash in all cases. For example he can be given a larger share of retirement or investment accounts. Also, while you were married, the community acquired a reimbursement right in some (but definitely not all) the money spend on his house before it was sold. That would be set-off against his separate property interest.
The resolution of the marital interest and his potential separate property interest is a complex issue that cannot be properly answered over the internet. During the past 23 years the law regarding the transmutation of separate property to community property have changed significantly. You should immediately retain an attorney to assist you with this matter.