Legal Question in Family Law in California

Re: multiple marriage

No. However, if the other party was not aware that you were already married, they may receive the same benefits they would have been entitled to had the marriage be valid.

Reply: multiple marriage

Since you got married in 1990 without first terminating your 1978 marriage, your 1990 marriage is voidable. I suggest that you consult wiht an experienced family law lawyer for specific guidance as to questions that you should be asking but have not.

Good luck to you!

Brian Levy, Esq.

www.calattorney.net

Re: multiple marriage

Dear Inquirer:

Nothing herein shall create an attorney-client relationship, unless a written retainer agreement is executed by the attorney and client. This communication contains general information only. Nothing herein shall constitute an attorney-client communication nor legal advice. There likely are deadlines and time-limits associated with your case; you should contact an attorney of your choice for legal advice specific to your personal situation, at once.

If you haven't already done so, please visit my

web site at --

http://home.pacbell.net/edbjr/ OR

http://www.CaliforniaDivorceAttorney.com

The site contains quite a bit of general information about California Family Law, Tenants' Rights, and Juvenile Dependencies, as well as information about me (education, experience, et cetera) and my office (location, hours, fees, policies).

NOW, IN RESPONSE TO YOUR INQUIRY --

The second marriage was void (due to bigamy -- provided you knew that your first spouse was alive). Void means it never existed. Your second wife may have claims against your nevertheless. And any children from the second marriage certainly woud.

Thanks for sharing your interesting inquiry with us on LawGuru, and good luck with your case.