Legal Question in Family Law in California

Hi, my question is if your married but have been seperated not legally and the husband/wife gets a settlement is the husband/wife entitled to the monies from the settlement.


Asked on 9/23/10, 4:40 pm

2 Answers from Attorneys

Depends on a lot of things, including when the cause of action arose and what it is for.

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Answered on 9/28/10, 4:50 pm
Anthony Roach Law Office of Anthony A. Roach

I agree with Mr. McCormick's response. Here is why:

If the cause of action was a personal injury action against a third party, and arose during marriage, the settlement is community property. (Fam. Code, sect. 780.)

If the cause of action was a personal injury action against a third party, and arose after permanent separation, then the settlement is the injured spouse's separate property. (Fam. Code, sect. 781.) The injured spouse in that instance, however, must reimburse the community or the other spouse for any expenses paid on account of the injury.

If the settlement was recovery for damage to community property, the settlement would be community property. If the settlement was recovery for damage to one spouse's separate property, then the settlement is separate property.

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Answered on 9/29/10, 4:33 pm


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