Legal Question in Family Law in California

If I were to sign money orders payable to me for an "attorney fee" settlement (but sent to my attorney) in a divorce case...would this constitute an absolute approval of same? The reason I ask...is because at this junction in the case, we are awaiting answers to a specific subpoena that may divulge that my husband has more to negotiate with than shown or had been stated by him before.

I need to leave the "door open" to further negotiations if necessary.

I am feeling a little uncomfortable about my present attorney's unbiaseness, or acting in my best interest. She has not been assertive or aggressive enough in my case, and have already paid her

bundles.

Thank you for whatever help you can be, without telling me something I already know...Go to my attorney with the matter.

I also have two other questions re my case. Can I put that to you together in the same fashion as this one, or separately?


Asked on 7/27/11, 3:05 pm

1 Answer from Attorneys
Lyle Johnson Bedi and Johnson Attorneys at Law

No one can answer your question without reading the order for the payment of attorney fees. However, as a general rule if you are waiting a response to subpoena the case is not final and the award of attorney fees would be an interim order, which would not cut off future conduct in the case. When you say she has not been assertive or aggressive enough, do you mean she has not met your expectations, or has she caved in on important points.

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Answered on 7/27/11, 3:51 pm


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