Legal Question in Family Law in California
Hello, my situation is that prior to my marriage I along with my girlfriend then who later became my wife purchased a vacation property which I've since sold as a rent -to own,
my question is,
her attorney is suggesting that she maybe entitled to a portion of the money that was used to purchase the property,
wouldn't she only be entitled to a portion of the net?
considering it was purchased prior to marriage exclusively with my funds,
are there any laws that may entitle her to any of the funds used to make the purchase?
1 Answer from Attorneys
Your question involves too many variables to answer in an internet Q&A format. The entire transaction history when the property was purchased, and how it was funded since, and where the income stream went when you put it in rent to own status, all factor in and would have to be reviewed in order to provide a valid answer. You need to consult a local family law attorney.
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