Legal Question in Family Law in California
sole and seperate property
I have been married for 22 years. My husband and I are now discussing the likelihood of getting a divorce. In researching our assets, I found the paperwork for the house that we have occupied and owned together for the past 13 yrs. On the refinance paperwork from 2005, this house was refinanced as sole and seperate property of my husband.
What does this mean? Is this legal for him to have sole and seperate property?
Please advise how this can affect the valuation of my divorce and assets?
Thank you
2 Answers from Attorneys
Reply: sole and seperate property
In a general sence, one would need more information from you and would have to review the underlying documents before providing you with an opinion regarding your unique circumstances.
For a specific opinion regarding your individual circumstances, I suggest that you consult with an experienced family law lawyer. Experience is not expensive, it's priceless!
You will find some valuable information on various California family law issues by visiting my web site.
Good luck to you!
Brian Levy, Esq.
www.calattorney.com
Re: sole and seperate property
Ordinarily all property that is acquired during marriage is community property. Each party owns an undivided one half interest in community property, which is divided during divorce. Community property can be converted to a person's separate property during marriage. Obviously, without knowing more about your specific situation, I cannot say more at this time. If you're in Southern California you may call my office for free consultation. Furthermore, you may want to check out my family Law website at divorce-legal.net
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