Legal Question in Family Law in California

Not until his interest in the home is established as none, or he deeds the property to his wife. Otherwise you are going to be tenants in common with the husband.

Mr. Roach's answer would be correct but for one key problem. If the offer was to buy the whole house, not a half interest, which presumably it was, then you have no contract until both owners sign the acceptance unless one owner has a power of attorney to sign for the other.