Legal Question in Intellectual Property in California

A friend and I apparently (my memory of this is very hazy, he tells me he remembers clearly) made an agreement about 7 years ago that he could use some of my copyrighted art (which he had commissioned and paid for, for a book he wrote) for other purposes for his business. My understanding was that it would be for non-commercial purposes (ie advertising, brochures, etc.) and that if he were to use it in any product which he would be receiving money for, we'd have to talk about it. But my memory is dim, and he claims that he asked me for, and I sold him, infinite reproduction rights for all purposes for all time and space. The payment I received was no more than several hundred dollars (we probably have no record of this, I believe it was a cash transaction, again his memory of it) but the commercial value of my work according to a conservative valuation based on standard industry prices is a minimum of $10,000. He recently told me that he intends to use my work in a new book. I told him I was not comfortable with this, and he said that he has every right based on our agreement, and intends to go ahead. I don't believe we have anything in writing, and my intention was to sell him only the non-commercial reproduction rights (and the amount of money exchanged would have been about right for this.) Is it possible for him to claim the right to reproduce my work based on a 7 year old oral agreement I'm not totally clear that I made, and which would violate my intention of his future use of my work? What if I actually had agreed to the agreement he says we made, but on my assumption that he would not use it in a way to take advantage of me - in other words, I agreed based on guarantees implied by our previous conversations (he said there would be more books, so there would be more work for me, which I took to imply that he would commission and pay for new work to be used in future books.) Again, I believe there is no paper trail of agreements or money exchanged. He has been extremely adversarial in conversations we've had where I pointed out that the value he claims to have received from me is far in excess of what he paid. Is a disputed 7 year old oral contract (his wife will also be willing to validate his version in court) enough to protect him from a claim of copyright infringement?

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