Legal Question in Real Estate Law in California
I co-signed a loan for a home in 2006. The home is now being foreclosured on and I feel like from the beginning the loan was faulty. One big concern I have is when first attempting for the loan we did not qualify because we did not have enough income/assets. Our real estate agent gave us money to put into our bank to qualify then asked for it back. Is this right? Can they do that? Can this help me fight to keep my home in court?
3 Answers from Attorneys
That is a pretty clear cut case of loan fraud by the agent. Unfortunately, that fraud is probably not attributable to the lender. In fact the lender may try to hang that fraud on you, since the agent did it on your behalf with your knowledge, to trick the bank into lending to you. If the agent has sufficient assets, you may be able to force a settlement in which he or she bails you out, but unless the lender independently did something wrong, you are going to have a tough time stopping the foreclosure.
Accepting a "window dressing" loan from the agent was a fraud on the lender unless you disclosed the associated debt (to repay the agent) in your loan application or otherwise -- and you probably didn't, because that would have tipped off the lender that you didn't qualify.
Adding loan-application fraud on top of a foreclosure gives the lender ammunition to seek to recover any deficiency in the proceeds of foreclosure from the participants in the fraud via a separate lawsuit to which the anti-deficiency statutes may not be a complete defense.
In my opinion, the use of borrowed funds to dress up your balance sheet will be a negative, not a positive, factor in stopping a foreclosure.
Mr. Whipple and Mr. McCormick are right. I wouldn't mention the loan fraud committed by your agent. If you didn't qualify for the loan, you should not have entered into the transaction in the first place.