Legal Question in Real Estate Law in California

Sorry that this is in more detail then might be needed.

While I have a "gut" feeling that it can not be done and I do not know of it being done, why can the following not occur? B purchases S' house, getting a bank loan, but S must carry back as a second the remaining portion of the purchase price. That second requires monthly payment of principal and interest. A few months after the sale, B declares she can pay monthly only part of the sum due under the "second." For technical reasons the carry back loan might not qualify as a secured second but may only be an unsecured loan.

Normally, S would have to file suit [and a lis pendes] to get a judgment against B, place a judgment lien on the property, and then try to sell the property, subject to the bank's first. The bank would foreclose because its security is being threatened; that foreclosure process would take at least 3-4 months. If the S buys the property at the foreclosure sale, her economic situation is: money received = downpayment, payments made on second, sum equal to first;escrow fees, transfer taxes; money paid out = escrow fees, higher taxed because property re-assessed to sale's price, house value, costs of suit. Filing suit against B is time consuming.

Instead, can S declare that B has breached the contract and ask that the parties be returned to their pre-contract positions, but with S assuming the first from the innocent lender? So S gets the property back subject to the first mortgage [she has already received from escrow the full amount of the first mortgage so it is like she borrowed that sum from the lender] and returns to B the amounts received as payments on the second. So S is back to the pre-sale position except for now having a mortgage in the same amount as the cash she actually received, and has incurred some minor costs that might be awarded against B so that S does not return the full amount she got from B. B does not have the house but has no loan to pay and gets back most of the money she has already paid. Since B is threatening to file for bankruptcy, S is getting stuck with a worthless second and no house.


Asked on 12/19/10, 9:31 am

1 Answer from Attorneys

David Gibbs The Gibbs Law Firm, APC

You need to consult with an attorney. This is not something that is capable of being answered on a free forum. It is complex, and a lot more needs to be reviewed to provide an opinion upon which you can determine how best to proceed. You also need to get a better understanding of what you can and cannot do as a second mortgage holder in California.

*Due to the limitations of the LawGuru Forums, The Gibbs Law Firm, APC's (the "Firm") participation in responding to questions posted herein does not constitute legal advice, nor legal representation of the person or entity posting a question. No Attorney/Client relationship is or shall be construed to be created hereby. The information provided is general and requires that the poster obtain specific legal advice from an attorney. The poster shall not rely upon the information provided herein as legal advice nor as the basis for making any decisions of legal consequence. As required by 11 U.S.C. �528, we must now disclose that, "We are a debt relief agency. We help people file for bankruptcy relief under the Bankruptcy Code. Assistance we provide with respect to Debt Relief may involve bankruptcy relief under the Bankruptcy Code."

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Answered on 1/10/11, 1:51 pm


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