Legal Question in Real Estate Law in California

I went through a divorce in 2006, we went through a paralegal and the own property we owned together was a house. We agreed that I would fix up the house and put it on the market in 1 year. We took out an equity line that was not enough to complete all the work needed on the house and then the market took a dive. At the time me and my ex wife agreed that we would wait until the market came back so that we could maximize our proceeds. Since then I have paid the mortage, taxes, and insurance on the property. A few years ago we had a falling out. I also ran into some financial issues and was not able to make a couple of the mortgage payments which my ex wife paid. She is now threatening me through her attorney to take me to court and take everything. My question is can she do that? California is a community property state, title is held in both our names and she made a verbal agreement to wait to sell the property until the market came back. Also, wont a judge look at the fact that she has waited 6 years before she decided to take me to court to force a sell? I am not opposed to selling the property but I dont think she should get everything


Asked on 5/20/13, 3:24 pm

2 Answers from Attorneys

Bryan Whipple Bryan R. R. Whipple, Attorney at Law

I think you'll get more (and better) answers to your question if you re-ask it under a category dealing with divorce issues rather than under "real estate and real property." However, I'm happy to give you my views, as follows:

Whether you went through a paralegal, used a topnotch law firm, or represented yourself, your dissolution of marriage resulted in a court judgment, a/k/a decree. That judgment should, and probably does, provide some guidance for the now-divorced parties as to how and when the assets and liabilities are to be divided. Therefore, I think your starting point has got to be to dust off your dissolution judgment from 2006 and see what was ordered.

A judge will look primarily to the provisions of the judgment of dissolution and any marital settlement agreement the parties negotiated and signed, or which was attached to the judgment as an exhibit. Secondarily, the judge will consider the degree of cooperation and participation of each former spouse in carrying out the terms of the judgment or settlement agreement, including excess (i.e., over 50%) expenses of carrying the property (mortgage, taxes, insurance) one or the other has borne, and excess benefits (rental income, benefit of occupancy, etc.) that one or the other may have received.

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Answered on 5/20/13, 5:20 pm
Anthony Roach Law Office of Anthony A. Roach

If your settlement agreement was done properly, it was incorporated into the judgment. A court is going to enforce the settlement agreement in accordance with its terms. The passage of time seems too long to set aside the settlement agreement, and you have not set forth any grounds that would give her standing to set it aside.

Send me a private e-mail if you would like a copy of a memo that I have which sets forth the strict statutory requirements to set aside a marriage settlement agreement.

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Answered on 5/28/13, 4:11 pm


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