Legal Question in Real Estate Law in California

I assume the easement is in favor of the city. I would say that a court would likely hold that use of an easement designated for foot and equestrian traffic only would be impermissibly overburdened by the city allowing bicycle use as well. So, in my opinion, the answer is no.

The scope of the easement is defined by the terms granting the easement. If it is specific, I doubt that a court would extend it to other uses.