Legal Question in Real Estate Law in California
Foreclosure
Due to an adjustable rate mortgage with a call date plus a second on our condo we may be forced to let it go into foreclosure. If this happens will we be liable for the difference between the loan balances and what the condo would sell for?
2 Answers from Attorneys
Re: Foreclosure
That difference is called a "deficiency." Code of Civil Procedure section 580b prevents your lenders from suing to collect a deficiency in this scenario.
Good luck.
Re: Foreclosure
This question can't be answered in one sentence. An analysis of your risk starts with whether the loans on the property are purchase-money loans or refinance loans. Also important is which lender initiates foreclosure and whether the lender believes you have other assets that could be reached, making a judicial foreclosure (instead of a trustee sale) worthwhile.
In any case, purchase-money lenders and lenders which elect to foreclose by trustee sale are not entitled to a deficiency judgment - they can take what they are owed from the foreclosure proceeds, then that's it, unless they have other grounds for suit, such as loan-application fraud or malicious waste of the collateral.
Assuming your first is purchase-money and the junior loan is a second taken later (the most usual scenario, I suppose) and that the holder of the first is the one that forecloses, that lender is not entitled to a deficiency judgment whether the foreclosure is by trustee sale or by judicial process.
However, after the foreclosure, the lender on the second becomes a "sold-out junior," has lost its security, and can sue you as an unsecured creditor. This is a fairly common danger.