Legal Question in Real Estate Law in California

Fraud

I filed for divorce in Nov.2002. Settlement meeting was scheduled for March 2003 (wife did not attend but we came to an agreement over the phone via her lawyer to settle things.)She then refused to sign agreement and requested changes.(Asked me to refinance to remove any responsibility for our loan.I agreed and she still refused to co-operate and sign. I found out that she did not attend because she was hiding the fact that she was buying a house with her boyfriend. They both signed all documents as ''unmarried''. Her boyfriend's divorce was not to be final until June 2003. I have been told that what they have done is fraud. Had the information about their home purchase been known in March I feel she would have settled to get that house. I now have incurred extra lawyer fees from March until now.

If the title company or loan company had done their job they would have discovered she was married and forced them to obtain title the correct way. How can they be punished for their fraud? How can I be compensated for my extra legal fees because someone failed to do their job. What they have done is wrong. Who should I report this to and what can they do? Please help me. Thanks


Asked on 1/03/05, 12:40 pm

1 Answer from Attorneys

Bryan Whipple Bryan R. R. Whipple, Attorney at Law

Re: Fraud

You already have a lawyer...either you have a reason not to ask your own lawyer this question, or you have already asked and don't trust the response. Either way, I think you need to address this problem first -- getting legal representation in the divorce case that you'll use and trust.

Now, as to your issues. The parties are supposed to be present at court-ordered settlement conferences. "Appearance" by telephone might be allowable in some cases. Your divorce lawyer should know the local rules governing family law settlement conferences and make sure that the other side observes them.

An oral settlement agreement is not enforceable unless made in court, before a judge, and on the record.

As to the possible fraud being practiced by your wife and her new "friend," one of the first questions you need to ask is who is the victim? To the extent you can show that their misrepresenting marital status in buying property affects you, e.g., if it results in concealing assets that should be disclosed on one of the required disclosures in a dissolution proceeding, you may have some legal recourse.

If, on the other hand, the only possible victims of the fraud are, for example, the seller or the lender on the newly-acquired house, it's probably none of your business, legally speaking.

Fraud can either be civil or criminal. The distinction is very fuzzy, and criminal fraud actions are probably brought whenever the local prosecutor feels the public interest is or was endangered by the fraudulent activity, e.g. by a phony multiple-lot land-sale scheme. The mis-statement of marital status here was probably to deceive the lender into making the loan without getting your signature and/or to obtain title showing no spousal interest. Whether this defrauds you (or anyone, for that matter) in a legally-redressible way depends upon additional facts, such as where the down-payment money came from. You'd need a family-law attorney to look over the facts.

However, as a starting point, civil fraud requires a deception that the victim innocently and reasonably relies upon, and suffers financial harm as a result of the deception. The deception usually consists of a willful and material mis-statement of fact, but can also be withholding a fact that one has a duty to disclose.

Your problem would be to show that you suffered any harm as a consequence of the misrepresentation. You may also have a statute of limitations problem, based on the dates mentioned in your question.

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Answered on 1/04/05, 2:59 pm


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