Legal Question in Real Estate Law in California
Hello,
My wife, before we got married, co-signed on a number properties for her friend. She doesn't have any interests in the properties and she only co-signed as a favor to her friend. Her friend cannot re-finance the properties as the properties are a bit underwater due to the recent housing bubble.
Now that we are married, I'm trying to see how I can protect my wifes and my assets should anything go wrong with the properties... I can only think of one thought : Have her friend sign a legal document written by an attorney that will keep my wife "whole" in the event any of the lenders decide to go after my wife if her friend fails to make payment on the loans... though my wife is hesitant to go this route as she doesn't wish to bring this option up to her friend (and she won't let me do so at the moment).
I'm wondering what other options we may have. If the lender decided to go after my wife, can she just tell the lenders "no" and recommend they take over the properties? I realize that would be a credit hit on my wife's credit rating, but she seems OK with that. Are there any other options I am overlooking?
Thank you!
2 Answers from Attorneys
The laws (statutes) and court decisions interpreting them on cosigner/guarantor liability are so many and so diverse that it would be necessary for a lawyer to examine each document and its underlying set of facts individually. The results for your wife and you may depend, for example, upon whether the paers she signed make her a co-obligor or a guarantor/surety, and whether the obligation is purchase-money or a refinancing. Perhaps the relationship between your wife and the friend amounted to a general partnership, which could produce another entirely different set of consequences. In most scenarios, co-debtors, guarantors, sureties, etc. are at relatively high risk, and might not have protection under the anti-deficiency laws.
Family Code section 910(a) provides that your community property is liable for the debts of either spouse, contacted before or during marriage. However, 911(a) says "The earnings of a married person during marriage are not liable for a debt incurred by the person's spouse before marriage. After the earnings of the married person are paid, they remain not liable so long as they are held in a deposit account in which the person's spouse has no right of withdrawal and are uncommingled with other property in the community estate, except property indignificant in amount."
You might want to go to your county's public law library and ask the librarian to let you look at Vol. 2 of Roger Bernhardt's "California Mortgage and Deed of Trust Practice," published by CEB (Continuing Education of the Bar). Chapter 9, sections 9.86 through 9.117, discusses the problems encountered in classifying co-signers, guarantors, endorsers, sureties, etc., the circumstances under which they may become liable to the lender, and whether and when they are protected by the one-action and/or antideficiency laws.
You might want to sit down with a real-estate attorney and have the documents and the underlying property situations reviewed. I also advise against trying to hide assets, as this may result in a fraudulent transfer, but there is no harm in keeping your separate property separate to the fullest extent possible.
I agree with Mr. Whipple's response. It would appear that by "co-signing" your wife became a guarantor of the underlying obligations. The lender views her as additional security. This is particularly important, because you mention that the value of the property is less than the amount of the debt.
There is no magic paper that she could sign, because she has guaranteed these debts and I doubt a lender is going to want to release additional security at a time like this. But she is entitled to defenses, which are numerous as Mr. Whipple points out.
Some of the key defenses are not direct application of the anti-deficiency statutes, but estoppel to raise them based on the doctrine of subrogation. One of the key questions that I would have for you is whether she signed what is called a "Gradsky" waiver or has received a "Mariners" letter.
Post 1995 waivers are governed by Civil Code section 2856. If she signed something like that, I suggest you familiarize yourself with that statute.
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