Legal Question in Real Estate Law in California

home ownership

My wife and I divorced, rather than go through the trouble of selling house, I am willing to give it to her. If I sign a quitclaim deed, how does that affect my standing with the mortgage company?


Asked on 5/20/08, 6:17 pm

4 Answers from Attorneys

Benjamin Berger Berger-Harrison, A Professional Corporation

Re: home ownership

1. Typically, it won't change the fact that you are required to make the payments.

2. Transferring your ownership interest might be a breach of the mortgage agreement.

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Answered on 5/20/08, 6:25 pm
Benjamin Berger Berger-Harrison, A Professional Corporation

Re: home ownership

1. Typically, it won't change the fact that you are required to make the payments.

2. Transferring your ownership interest might be a breach of the mortgage agreement.

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Answered on 5/20/08, 6:28 pm
Mitchell Roth MW Roth, Professional Law Corporation

Re: home ownership

Technically you are still on the hook. But, if the mortgage was used to purchase the property there is no deficiency judgment available if there is a foreclosure. But, a foreclosure would still be on your credit record.

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Answered on 5/20/08, 7:47 pm
Bryan Whipple Bryan R. R. Whipple, Attorney at Law

Re: home ownership

Whether or not there is a foreclosure or any problem with future payments, transferring ownership is probably going to breach a "due on sale" or similarly-named clause in the loan agreement, technically making the entire remaining loan balance immediately due and payable. I think it is pretty rare for a lender to seek that remedy so long as payments are reasonably current, but there is no need to tempt fate. Most lenders will formally waive the "due on sale" in divorce situations, sometimes asking a small fee for processing the paperwork. You are better advised to work with the lender than to take your chances with being asked to pay up!

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Answered on 5/20/08, 8:05 pm


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