Legal Question in Real Estate Law in California

Can a property with a deed listing 2/3 ownership in the name of a trust and 1/3 ownership in the name of a single, unmarried person qualify for the "homestead" declaration?

Thanks.


Asked on 2/12/10, 11:45 am

1 Answer from Attorneys
Bryan Whipple Bryan R. R. Whipple, Attorney at Law

Yes. The person declaring homestead need not be the sole or even the primary owner; all that is required is that the place be real estate, the declarant's primary residence, and that he or she have "an interest" therein - which can even be a long-term lease.

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Answered on 2/17/10, 4:31 pm


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