Legal Question in Real Estate Law in California

real estate law

I was married, lived 3 months with

my husband, and was then

separated , completely and for good.

Before getting legally divorced I

bought a house in California, so my

Grant Deed describes my as ''a

married woman''. The divorce took

place in England. Does my

exhusband have the right to take

any part of my house away from

me?


Asked on 6/22/08, 5:21 am

1 Answer from Attorneys
Mitchell Roth MW Roth, Professional Law Corporation

Re: real estate law

No. But, if the deed does not describe you as "A married woman, as her sole and separate property," you may need to file a court action to get marketable title.

Read more
Answered on 6/23/08, 10:46 pm


Related Questions & Answers

More Real Estate and Real Property questions and answers in California