Legal Question in Real Estate Law in California
real estate law
I was married, lived 3 months with
my husband, and was then
separated , completely and for good.
Before getting legally divorced I
bought a house in California, so my
Grant Deed describes my as ''a
married woman''. The divorce took
place in England. Does my
exhusband have the right to take
any part of my house away from
me?
Asked on 6/22/08, 5:21 am
1 Answer from Attorneys
Mitchell Roth
MW Roth, Professional Law Corporation
Re: real estate law
No. But, if the deed does not describe you as "A married woman, as her sole and separate property," you may need to file a court action to get marketable title.
Answered on 6/23/08, 10:46 pm