Legal Question in Real Estate Law in California

Real Estate and Property

Hi,

My inlaws bought a house about 5

years ago in CA and my husband and

inlaws are the title owners on the

property. He made me sign a quit

claim on the property so that I would

have no right on the property.

We have been married 14 years and

have no prenuptial agreement. My

question is if my husband pays for

their mortgage and or expenses a

certain percentage (say $1500 a

month) then do I have any right over

the property. If this money was not

used for mortgage but say for my

inlaws personal expenses, do I still

have any right over the money ?

Please let me know. Thanks


Asked on 10/12/08, 11:24 am

1 Answer from Attorneys
Lyle Johnson Bedi and Johnson Attorneys at Law

Re: Real Estate and Property

If community property funds are used to pay for a portion of the mortgage the community should be reimbursed for the community property used to pay the mortgage.

Read more
Answered on 10/16/08, 10:42 pm


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