Legal Question in Real Estate Law in California

Refinancing in someone else name

About 10 years ago I refinanced my mothers home because she didn't have income. The house was deed was transferred to my name so that I can refinance for her. Since then she has made all the payments using her checking account etc. I am currently going through a divorce and my spouse was fully well aware of the arrangement. Currently she is using the house that is not ours as part of the divorce agreement. Legally can I prove that the equity that the house is worth is 100% my mother and not mine? What proof would I need?

Thank you very much


Asked on 1/26/03, 2:16 pm

1 Answer from Attorneys

Bryan Whipple Bryan R. R. Whipple, Attorney at Law

Re: Refinancing in someone else name

Either the house is yours as a result of a gift, or it remains your mother's because the deed is void, or, a third possibility, you are in some kind of co-ownership with your mother. At the moment, that's not necessary to sort out.

In any of the three possibilities mentioned above, your interest in the house, if any, should be your separate property and not community property.

There may be facts you haven't mentioned that would change this preliminary diagnosis, but if I were you, I would start out with the position that there is no community-property interest in the house.

When you say 'part of the divorce agreement,' this doesn't tell me much. Is she claiming this house as community property that needs to be divided, or just acknowledging it as your separate property? A marital settlement agreement ordinarily lists and identifies the divorcing spouses' separate property as well as the community property, just to show (in case of a dispute later on) that the possibility of a community-property interest in that asset was considered and dismissed by agreement of the spouses.

If you aren't now represented by a family-law attorney in the dissolution proceeding, maybe you should retain one.

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Answered on 1/27/03, 1:36 pm


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