Legal Question in Real Estate Law in California

That would require a lot more legal analysis than can be provided here, starting with more information about who the sellers are, relationship to each other, etc., to establish whether the one who did initial can bind the other, the intention of the non-initialing party (oversight or intent not to be bound), and any other theory that might apply to bind the non-initialing seller. There's just no simple cookie-cutter answer to that one. It would not, however, change the fact that the sellers are limited to money damages. It would only affect the measure of damages.