Legal Question in Real Estate Law in California

The question that occurs to me is "What is the purpose of the audit?" It's unlikely that the (former) lender can legally seek any shortfall after foreclosure. Is it possible that the foreclosure resulted in a surplus that should be distributed to the co-owner or heirs? If it's just some attempt by the lender to verify its own books and records, I'd probably tell them sorry, I don't know enough about this deal any more to confirm or deny the correctness of your records. In any event, I can't give you clearer advice without more information as to what the lender wants you to sign.

I don't know what your question is. I can tell you that assuming that the remaining tenant in common was your tenant is erroneous, as a tenancy in common has nothing to do with a landlord tenant relationship. One tenant in common does not owe rent to the other tenants in common for owning the property.

I also do not know why you raise the issue of not getting notice. If you moved and did not update your address or request special notice, that would have been your fault and not the lender or foreclosing trustee.

California law allows the use of mortgages, but what you refer to as a mortgage was most likely a deed of trust.