Legal Question in Real Estate Law in California
My wife and I have invested 18 years of mortgage payments and upgrades to a house which was bought by my wife's ex-husband. They had a verbal agreement to divide the equity 50-50 if the house was ever sold. Now, my wife would like for him to settle the agreement with a buyout. It would not be a 50-50 split. He is reneging on the agreement. My wife is wondering if she has personal interest in the house. A lawyer told her years ago that she did. She can provide mortgage slips and upgrade bills. My questions are: Does she have personal interest? What is her recourse?
Thank you for your time. Scott
1 Answer from Attorneys
Your question omits an important fact: Who is on title? If you and/or your wife are on record title, the case will be simpler, and would involve a straightforward action for "partition by sale." If not on title, you'd probably have to include a cause of action to quiet title and or a "resulting trust" and allege all the facts behind the verbal agreement and why you are co-owners despite lack of a recorded deed. Maybe the divorce-case records would be useful If there is sufficient evidence to establish the existence and terms of the oral agreement. I encourage you to provide me (by email to [email protected]) with more information about title to the house and title history, whether the divorce case treated the house subject, and other long-ago background information, as well as whether informal paperwork and letters (etc.) exist which would help to bolster oral testimony. (No charge or obligation for such further review).