Legal Question in Real Estate Law in California

four years ago a real estate company asked me if I would lease my home to their client. I agreed and a six month lease was signed. The lease agreement expired but the tenant continued to rent the home with no lease of any sort. The tenant decided to purchase the home from me and I sold it to him. Now the real estate company is demanding a 4% commission because the original lease agreement stated that if the tenant should purchase the property I would owe the company the commission. I believed that that agreement was only valid during the lease agreement. Is that agreement valid indefinitely?


Asked on 9/23/17, 6:11 pm

1 Answer from Attorneys
Gerald Dorfman Dorfman Law Office

Your question says that the client of the real estate company was the tenant. If that is the case, then the agreement regarding a commission should have been between the company and the tenant. If the company was acting as a dual agent, that is something that should have been specifically disclosed to you. However, you do refer to an agreement which apparently was signed by you. So, it really is a situation where you need to have a consultation with an attorney which covers all the facts, and the attorney can review the agreement.

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Answered on 9/23/17, 6:23 pm


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