Legal Question in Traffic Law in California
It is my understanding that a statute is defined as "given the weight of law by consent of the governed". Does a statute have the weight of law, absent consent? In other words: Can a statute be imposed absent consent?
Asked on 7/26/15, 4:56 pm
1 Answer from Attorneys
Joe Dane
Law Office of Joe Dane
If this is a question along the lines of whether or not state laws can be applied to you as either a "free person" "free man" or sovereign citizen, the answer is yes, they can.
Answered on 7/26/15, 4:58 pm
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