Legal Question in Wills and Trusts in California
I have posted 2 questions based on the below Civil Code:
"CA. Civil Code 3439.09. (c) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, a cause of action with respect to a fraudulent transfer or obligation is extinguished if no action is brought or levy made within seven years after the transfer was made or the obligation was incurred."
This is part of the 1st the first question, and the answer:
Q: From what I've read online, this, CA Civil Code Provision seems to only benefit Creditors, who feel they're being taken advantage of by someone in a situation where the asset used for an obligation with the Creditor is Fraudulently Transferred, so the Debt doesn't have to be paid back to the Creditor...."
A: "It only applies to creditors. It is called "Uniform" because it was adopted from a standardized draft law prepared for nationwide use by any state that wanted to use it by the national Uniform Laws Commission. ULC laws are available for states to adopt as is or with any modifications the state legislature may choose. Your description of the situation is too vague and hypothetical to answer what other laws might apply. If you post with specific facts we might have suggestions.
-Timothy McCormick
Based on this answer, I asked this longer, but more specific question:
Q: Okay then, I'll be as specific as possible, based on the 2nd example that I used in the original question:
"A scenario in which one who owned the property (Bona Fide Purchaser./BFP), got ripped off by the Debtor, who stole the property from the BFP, by deeding title on it to him/herself on December 5, 2005, thus constituting a "Fraudulent Transfer".
Then, the Debtor took out a loan (Obligation) with a Creditor for their OWN benefit that "Closed" on March 7th, 2006, when the Creditor had Constructive "Notice" of the BFP's Prior Recorded Ownership, but approved the loan anyway.
Incredibly, 2 and a half years went by, before the BFP learned of the theft by the Debtor, and when the Debtor finally got Caught, the property was deeded back to the BFP . But before something could be done to address the loan, the Debtor Died, leaving the BFP's property with an Debt (in the Debtor's name) that the BFP isn't responsible for"
With California being a "Race/Notice" State, and the property having been recorded by the BFP 1st, if the BFP filed a Cause Of Action against the Creditor as The BFP, based on the March 7th 2006 "Date Of Obligation" before the Statute runs on March 7th of 2013, would the BFP be allowed to use THIS Provision to DO so?
Or would the Court state to the BFP, "since you are NOT a Creditor, you cannot sue under Provision 3439.09. (c), since it is Legally "Exclusive" to Creditors, and not any other party, even though they are connected to the Obligation" ??
If the answer is NO, then being the BFP and victim in this situation, THIS is where I feel that being unable to use this Provision is confusing as well as unfair, particularly if there is NO other Legal option available with the SAME 7 year Statute, that could be used by either a BFP, or other parties for the SAME purpose.
A: �You're mixing up legal issues that don't have anything to do with each other. A "fraudulent transfer" under the statutes is a fraudulent conveyance or transfer to avoid creditors, An example is where a defendant conveys property to a family member or close friend, with no consideration, to avoid that property being taken when the creditor obtains a judgment.
It has nothing to do with a title dispute whereby a deed was forged or someone was defrauded into giving up title.
-Anthony Roach
So, based on the above Attorney responses, I'll ask ONE final question about this, which would probably be obvious:
If the BFP in this particular situation CAN'T use THIS Provision to file a "Cause Of Action" against the Creditor, based on THEIR Liability in the matter, then WHAT SIMILAR California Civil Code Provision COULD be used by the BFP, that would also be based on "The Date Of Obligation", and WOULD also provide the BFP the SAME length of time under it's Statute, in which to file??
2 Answers from Attorneys
You have somehow learned enough legal terms that you completely do not understand, and have latched onto a statute that you also nearly completely do not understand, so that you are coming up with questions that border on complete gibberish. If you want help with your situation you really need to do one of two things: a) just write a simple fact-based question, as if you were explaining it to a friend over a cup of coffee, or to your mother, using specific dates and being specific about what has actually happened, step by step, in chronological order. And then simply ask what, if anything, you can do about it; or b) just go see a lawyer and talk it through. I STRONGLY recommend using option b), but if you want to try option a) we'll do our best to help.
I should also add that you are posting under wills trusts and estates, which is the topic for probate and related matters regarding property passing upon death. Your question is either a Real Property question or a Civil Litigation question. One other thought as well - it SOUNDS like your issue is that you have a lender with a mortgage or deed of trust on the property and that is the core of the problem. If so, and if they assert a present right to the lien, then the statute of limitations probably has not started to run at all on most potentially applicable causes of action. Without knowing the actual detailed facts of the situation, however, there really is no way to say.