Legal Question in Wills and Trusts in California

Prenuptial Agreement after 27 years

My Father had my mom sign a prenuptial agreement before they were married. However they have now been married for over 27 years and i am wondering if it is still legally binding? She is looking at divorce and so i am concerned about her financial future. Then the second part is that they are going through rewriting their trust and he is specifying that our three vacation homes, current residence, and apartment biuldings are his becuase he has the only income of the two. these were all bought while in the marriage.


Asked on 11/09/07, 8:04 pm

3 Answers from Attorneys

Elizabeth Powell ELizabeth Powell PS Inc

Re: Prenuptial Agreement after 27 years

Mr. Sher's answer is valid for WA law, too. Here, a pre nup can be declared invalid for various reasons, but the mere passage of time is not generally one of the reasons.

Both CA and WA are community property states, and re-writing his trust to effectively disinherit her is not in accord with the common law or the statutes.

Hope that helps. Elizabeth Powell

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Answered on 11/10/07, 10:42 am
Mitchell Roth MW Roth, Professional Law Corporation

Re: Prenuptial Agreement after 27 years

The prenup is valid if it is valid by its terms. Without reading the agreement I can't tell you more. If any assets are your dad's or community property will also depend upon the terms of the prenup. Also, the prenup may not be valid and your mom can and should consult an attorney who can best protect her interests.

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Answered on 11/10/07, 4:00 pm
George Shers Law Offices of Georges H. Shers

Re: Prenuptial Agreement after 27 years

The prenuptial agreement does not become void because of the passage of time. But if your mother was not represented by counsel and your father was, or there was some other element of lack of equal standing or understanding in making the agreement, then it might never have been valid. Your would have to check with an attorney as to that.

In California, all property obtained during marriage by the use of community funds as opposed to money the individual had before marriage or inherits during the marriage, is considered community property. So unless your father used his separate money he had before they were married to buy the property and to make all the payments on it since, which is very doubtful, the property is community property and your mother is entitled to half of it.

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Answered on 11/09/07, 8:56 pm


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