Legal Question in Family Law in Connecticut
Divorce
My husband owned the home we lived in a year prior to our marriage. Will he be able to make me move out when the divorce is final? He never put my name on the home. Also, I have lived in the home with him approximately 3 months after he bought it up until now, which is 8 years later.
Additionally, per my husband's request I have not worked full-time since 2005 to raise our child. I have no income at this time and he wishes to file for a divorce right away. What does this mean and how will I be affected by this? I do not want the divorce but I can not stop him from filing. My wishes are to remain in the home, share custody of our son with liberal visitations. Yet, I have not secured employment although, I have two undergrad degrees. Been looking for work for 18 months. I could see this coming down the pike.
1 Answer from Attorneys
Re: Divorce
You most likely are entitled to some financial interest in the home. However, with the poor housing market today, it's not clear from your facts how much that would be. You would need an appraisal. Furthermore, how much equity in the home is vital to what you would be entitled to. How much of the equity you could be entitled to I can not answer without an in depth look at the entire financial picture.
You also may be entitled to alimony. How much and for how long depends on several factors. How much he earns, your ability to earn in this market and your needs are just a few.
Whether you can remain in the home post-divorce is not an easy answer, since all of the above including other factors need to be considered.
Since you don't want the divorce, have you suggested to him that marriage counseling may be in order?
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