Legal Question in Family Law in Connecticut
What portion am I entitled to
Just sold house that was in husband's name only; he owned before we married. During marriage he paid bills, my financial contribution has been minimal (mainly groceries, furnishings). If we divorce do I have right to any of the money from sale of house? There are no children involved, & he's not buying another property, just renting an apartment.
Asked on 6/15/07, 10:14 am
1 Answer from Attorneys
Nicholas Adamucci
ADAMUCCI, LLC
Re: What portion am I entitled to
Most likely not because it was an asset owned prior to the marriage. However, this is subject to a further factual analysis as you stated that you paid for furnishings. As a general rule, anything accumulated with marital assets is split.
If you need further help, please email me at [email protected].
Answered on 6/15/07, 10:49 am
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